You’re missing the initial point.
It’s super simple.
Steroid users are prone to gyno yeah? Why?
The use of Testosterone causing the imbalance, in which genetic dispositions will dictate the body’s reaction to higher androgens, and in most cases, a increase of estradiol primarily due to higher aromatase activity CAUSED - being the key word here, by use of supraphysiological doses of the hormone, the body is extremely efficient - as you said there’s a homeostatic point in males that must be maintained. Some imbalances occur in certain individuals that may have more aromatase enzymes, higher body fat levels, or lower T levels to contribute to a higher E2 level, as part of an equilibrium as you mentioned. Hence why we see variance in E2 related symptoms. In which does not occur with everyone right? I have clients who run 100mg of T, and already will have gland flare ups, others can run 4-500mg, bigger bodies can run more depending on body composition. Again it is extremely subjective.
Back to your original point of state of equilibrium, androgen to Estrogen ratios, basic pharmacology.
As said above, more androgen activity and in this being Testosterone, will cause an imbalance. You literally said it yourself. We are talking Testosterone, not Dianabol, Deca, Tren or Ment.
“If we induce gynecomastia or ED by artificially lowering DHT with finasteride, it's the Androgens which are the variable, not estrogen“
This statement above is not practical, who in the hell would want to induce Gyno or ED Artificially via lowering DHT through Finasteride? This statement is not applicable nor does it makes sense? We aren’t out here on purpose trying to get gyno, but it is a side effect of taking testosterone with different variable tolerances between individuals. And is 99% the causation of Gyno. To treat it you need pharmacological intervention through either a Type 1 or Type 2 or a SERM. Or maybe just lowering the test dose, do you see what the common theme is here? Like you said it’s the imbalance - completely agree with you, but again what is the cause of an Imbalance? Fair, if someone has an imbalance as stated above then your argument is valid, this argument is based of Testosterone Induced Gyno, not Finasteride induced Gyno?
“I've treated clients, along with the medical field with early onset of gyno and ED by simply lifting the androgen load and leaving estrogen as it is. Again, if estrogen was causative, why doesn't gyno or ED persist AFTER androgens are brought up and e2 level are left the same? Because it's a balancing act and not reliant on just estrogen”
This doesn’t make sense either? Tell me how you get someone with early onset gyno, treat them with testosterone, and E2 stays the same? Tell me how often these people jab their testosterone? Pharmacologically this does not make sense.. Basic Pharmacology shows that Testosterone is undergoes aromatisation in higher levels as the body senses excess, again which where tolerances vary, due to this excess, we have a biochemical process called Aromatisation, which is a basic fundamental pathway of the body dealing with excess androgens. Now tell me how you are treating these people with MORE androgens without the use of an AI, SERM or any other intervention?